Table of Contents
Understanding the Prometric Exam
The Prometric exam is a crucial assessment for dental professionals who wish to practice in the United Arab Emirates (UAE). This examination ensures that candidates meet the competency standards required for dental practice. It assesses knowledge across various subjects essential for effective clinical practice.
1. A 14-year-old boy has recently started orthodontic treatment using fixed appliances. He was referred to the periodontal clinic due to improper oral hygiene and generalized gingival inflammation. Which of the following is the most effective brushing technique for this patient?
A. Bass technique
B. Stillman technique
C. Charter’s technique
D. Modified Bass technique
Correct Answer: ✅ Charter’s technique
Explanation: Charter’s technique is recommended for patients with fixed appliances as it effectively cleans around braces and wires.
2. A 26-year-old man presents to the dental clinic with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. The patient had poor oral hygiene, multiple caries, and partially erupted lower third molars. Which of the following are referred to as the primary incubation zone in this case?
A. Dental cavities
B. Pericoronal flaps
C. Periodontal pockets
D. Pre-existing chronic gingival disease
Correct Answer: ✳ Pericoronal flaps
Explanation: Pericoronal flaps provide a favorable environment for bacterial growth, often serving as the incubation zone for infections.
3. A patient presented to the clinic complaining of a clicking sound when the dentures contact during speech and eating. The dentures are new and were recently inserted. What type of denture teeth would cause this clicking sound?
A. Gold
B. Porcelain
C. Acrylic with gold occlusal surfaces
Correct Answer: ✅ Porcelain
Explanation: Porcelain teeth are harder than other materials and are more likely to produce a clicking sound during contact.
4. A 38-year-old man came to the dental clinic complaining of pain during jaw movement and a “catching” sensation when opening wide. Clinical examination confirmed limited mouth opening with a slight deviation to the right side. A clicking sound was present during opening and closing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Closed lock
B. Internal derangement
C. Functional disc dislocation with reduction
D. Functional disc dislocation without reduction
Correct Answer: ✅ Functional disc dislocation with reduction
Explanation: Clicking sounds with jaw movement indicate disc dislocation that reduces back into place during function.
5. What is the function of bands for space maintainers?
A. Initially to push the band by the dentist, then for final positioning by the dentist
B. Initially to push the band by asking the patient to bite it
C. For final positioning of the band by asking the patient to bite on it
Correct Answer: ✳ Initially to push the band by the dentist, then for final positioning by the dentist
Explanation: Proper positioning and adjustment of bands are primarily handled by the dentist to ensure effectiveness.
6. Which of the following systemic conditions can result in gagging in old denture wearers?
A. Adenoids
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Hormonal replacement
Correct Answer: ✅ Adenoids
Explanation: Enlarged adenoids can cause gagging by narrowing the oropharyngeal space, particularly in denture wearers.
7. An edentulous patient presented to the clinic requesting replacement of upper and lower dentures. Examination revealed worn-down teeth, a flat mandibular occlusal plane, and mobile flabby soft tissues covering the residual ridge. Which definitive impression technique would be preferred in this case?
A. Admix
B. Mucostatic
C. Plaster stent
D. Applegate controlled displacement
Correct Answer: ✅ Mucostatic
Explanation: The mucostatic technique captures the soft tissues in a non-compressed state, ideal for flabby ridges.
8. A 9-year-old boy attended a dental check-up. History and clinical examination revealed positive behavior, multiple restorations on primary teeth, and fully erupted sound first permanent molars. Which of the following preventive measures would be provided in this case?
A. Prophylaxis and topical fluoride gel application
B. Prophylaxis and topical fluoride varnish application
C. Prophylaxis, topical fluoride application, and unfilled resin fissure sealants for permanent molars
D. Prophylaxis, topical fluoride application, and glass ionomer cement fissure sealants for permanent molars
Correct Answer: ✳ Prophylaxis, topical fluoride application, and unfilled resin fissure sealants for permanent molars
Explanation: Unfilled resin sealants provide effective caries prevention for erupting permanent molars.
9. After attempting a pulpotomy procedure in a primary molar, bleeding continued. What is the probable cause?
A. Necrotic pulp
B. Coronal pulpal inflammation
C. Radicular pulpal inflammation
D. Intracanal abscess formation
Correct Answer: ✅ Radicular pulpal inflammation
Explanation: Persistent bleeding during pulpotomy typically indicates radicular pulpal involvement.
10. Which of the following is a clinical characteristic feature of Class I malocclusion?
A. Calculus deposits
B. Interproximal caries
C. Dental malalignment
D. Perfectly aligned teeth
Correct Answer: ✅ Dental malalignment
Explanation: Class I malocclusion is defined by a normal molar relationship but misaligned teeth.
11. A 27-year-old man presented to the dental clinic complaining of severe pain in the lower left area. Examination revealed an inflamed, fluctuant swelling partially covering the mandibular left third molar, with no regional lymph node involvement. What should be the initial management?
A. Drainage
B. Systemic antibiotic
C. Debridement and irrigation
D. Extraction of the third molar
Correct Answer: ✅ Debridement and irrigation
Explanation: Initial management focuses on relieving inflammation and clearing debris before considering further invasive procedures.
12. A periodontist is performing a scaling procedure. Which of the following instruments is the operator likely using? (Refer to the image)
A. Scaler
B. Chisel
C. Curette
D. Bone file
Correct Answer: ✳ Dependent on image clarity
Explanation: The instrument depends on the specific task during scaling, with scalers and curettes being the most common choices.
13. A 24-year-old man presents with fibrotic thickening of the gingiva, requiring surgical reshaping and contouring. The patient has no gingival pockets. Which procedure is needed?
A. Gingivoplasty
B. Gingivectomy
C. Gingival curettage
D. Gingival augmentation
Correct Answer: ✅ Gingivoplasty
Explanation: Gingivoplasty reshapes and contours the gingiva without addressing pocket elimination.
14. A 52-year-old man visited the dental clinic for periodontal treatment. Examination revealed severe gingival inflammation, and the patient reported a 30-year history of smoking. What is a primary effect of smoking on periodontal health?
A. Affects periodontal vasculature
B. Decreases surgical wound infection
C. Reduces proliferation of periodontal pathogens
D. Promotes immune response to invading periodontal bacteria
Correct Answer: ✅ Affects periodontal vasculature
Explanation: Smoking reduces blood flow and impairs vascular health, contributing to periodontal disease severity.
15. Which of the following signs strongly indicates implant failure?
A. Implant mobility
B. Vertical bone loss
C. Soft tissue swelling
D. Bleeding on probing
Correct Answer: ✅ Implant mobility
Explanation: Mobility is a definitive sign of implant failure, often indicating loss of osseointegration.
16. A 14-year-old girl visited the dental clinic. Examination revealed protruded maxillary central incisors, incomplete lip closure, and maxillary molars in an anterior relationship with mandibular molars. What is the Angle classification of this malocclusion?
A. Class I
B. Class II, Division 1
C. Class II, Division 2
D. Class III
Correct Answer: ✅ Class II, Division 1
Explanation: Class II, Division 1 is characterized by protruded upper incisors and a forward placement of maxillary molars.
17. Which periodontal probe features a 0.5 mm ball at the tip?
A. WHO probe
B. Nabers probe
C. Williams probe
D. Marquis probe
Correct Answer: ✅ WHO probe
Explanation: The WHO probe includes a 0.5 mm ball at its tip for standardized periodontal measurements.
18. A 19-year-old man complains of bleeding while brushing his teeth. Clinical examination reveals normal probing depths and no attachment loss. Radiographs show normal bone levels. What is the main etiologic factor?
A. Malocclusion
B. Dental calculus
C. Occlusal trauma
D. Bacterial plaque
Correct Answer: ✅ Bacterial plaque
Explanation: Gingival bleeding without attachment loss or bone involvement typically indicates plaque-induced gingivitis.
19. A complete denture patient returned for a follow-up and reported soreness on the crest of the mandibular ridge on the left side. What is the most likely cause?
A. Hypersensitivity contact
B. Premature occlusal contact
C. Poor final impression record
D. Incomplete polymerization of the denture base
Correct Answer: ✅ Premature occlusal contact
Explanation: Premature contact creates localized pressure on the mandibular ridge, leading to discomfort and soreness.
20. A complete denture patient came back for a post-checkup. Upon examination, there was soreness on the crest of the mandibular ridge on the left side.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Hypersensitivity contact
B. Premature occlusal contact
C. Poor final impression record
D. Incomplete polymerization of the denture base
✅ Correct Answer: B. Premature occlusal contact
Premature occlusal contacts can create localized pressure points, leading to soreness and discomfort in the mandibular ridge area.
21. How can xylitol-containing chewing gums reduce caries in children if used routinely?
A. Altering the formation of enamel crystals
B. Enhancing the process of remineralization
C. Decreasing Streptococcus mutans levels in saliva and plaque
D. Increasing the resistance of tooth structure to demineralization
✅ Correct Answer: C. Decreasing Streptococcus mutans levels in saliva and plaque
Xylitol inhibits the growth of Streptococcus mutans, a major bacterium involved in caries formation, reducing its ability to adhere to teeth.
22. A 45-year-old healthy woman presented to the clinic complaining of bleeding while brushing. Clinical examination revealed generalized probing depths ranging from 5-7 mm, generalized bleeding on probing, horizontal bone loss, and thin tissue.
Which of the following is the most likely treatment of choice?
A. Polish and reevaluate after 4-6 weeks
B. Graft site connective tissue graft
C. Scaling and root planing, then reevaluate after 4-6 weeks
D. Do not do any treatment as it will induce gingival recession
✅ Correct Answer: C. Scaling and root planing, then reevaluate after 4-6 weeks
Scaling and root planing effectively reduce inflammation and periodontal pockets, allowing for a more accurate reevaluation.
23. A 44-year-old woman presented to the dental clinic. She is a known case of hypertension and is taking nifedipine. Clinical examination revealed generalized drug-induced gingival enlargement.
Which of the following is the best substitute medication that has no influence on gingival enlargement in this case?
A. Cardizem
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isradipine
✅ Correct Answer: D. Isradipine
Isradipine is a calcium channel blocker with minimal or no impact on gingival overgrowth, making it a suitable alternative for hypertensive patients.
24. A patient wearing a denture with an extremely resorbed mandibular ridge complains of pain and paresthesia of the lower lip.
Which of the following is the most probable cause?
A. Denture stomatitis
B. Vitamin B-complex deficiency
C. Pressure on the mental nerve by the denture base
D. Irritation of the lower lip from denture flanges
✅ Correct Answer: C. Pressure on the mental nerve by the denture base
Resorbed ridges can cause the denture base to press on the mental nerve, leading to pain and numbness in the lower lip.
25. A dentist plans to provide implant-supported fixed complete dentures following a 2-stage surgical protocol. After placing implants, the openings were closed with small metallic components and buried under the gum. What are these components?
A. Healing cuff
B. Cover screws
C. Abutment screws
D. Healing abutment
✅ Correct Answer: B. Cover screws
Explanation: Cover screws are used to seal the openings of implants during the initial healing period, keeping the implants buried under the gum until the second-stage surgery.
26. An 8-year-old boy with a non-vital left maxillary central incisor and no periapical lesion needs treatment. What is the best management?
A. Root canal apexification treatment
B. Conventional root canal treatment
C. Calcium hydroxide direct pulp treatment
D. Calcium hydroxide indirect pulp treatment
✅ Correct Answer: A. Root canal apexification treatment
Explanation: Apexification encourages the formation of a calcified barrier in immature teeth with open apices, ensuring proper sealing during future root canal treatments.
27. A 54-year-old woman with gingival enlargement reports a history of renal transplant and immunosuppressive medication. Which medication is most associated with this condition?
A. Phenytoin
B. Nifedipine
C. Amlodipine
D. Cyclosporine
✅ Correct Answer: D. Cyclosporine
Explanation: Cyclosporine, commonly used as an immunosuppressant post-transplant, is a known cause of drug-induced gingival enlargement.
(28) A periodontist is performing resective osseous surgery for a patient. During the procedure, interproximal bone level varied horizontally, with areas of one-walled interproximal defects (hemiseptal defects) being observed. Consequently, the periodontist had to correct these areas during the procedure.
Which of the following best describes the correction step?
- A. Vertical grooving
- B. Radicular blending
- C. Gradualizing marginal bone flat
- D. Gradualizing marginal bone
✅ Correct Answer: Gradualizing marginal bone
Explanation: This step ensures a smooth transition of bone levels to minimize interproximal defects and improve periodontal health.
(29) Which of the following would be the most common extraction pattern for a camouflage treatment for an adult Class III patient with no crowding?
- A. Extraction of upper 4s
- B. Extraction of lower 4s
- C. Expansion in both arches
- D. Extraction of upper 4s and expansion in lower arch
✅ Correct Answer: Extraction of lower 4s
Explanation: In Class III camouflage treatments, extracting lower premolars helps retract the anterior teeth, balancing the jaw relationship.
(30) Which of the following is the basic type of curette?
- A. Langer and Gracey
- B. Gracey and Columbia
- C. Mini Fives and After Fives
- D. Universal and area-specific (Gracey)
✅ Correct Answer: Universal and area-specific (Gracey)
Explanation: These curettes are standard tools for periodontal therapy, with universal curettes used broadly and Gracey curettes for specific areas.
(31) There are clinical instances where simultaneous bone resorption increases along the mesial surfaces of teeth while new bone forms along the distal surfaces of the same teeth.
Which of the following is an example of such an instance?
- A. Orthodontic tooth extrusion
- B. Physiological mesial migration
- C. Orthodontic widening of diastema
- D. Tooth in infraocclusion due to root ankylosis
✅ Correct Answer: Physiological mesial migration
Explanation: This natural phenomenon occurs as teeth gradually drift mesially due to occlusal forces and bone remodeling.
(32) Which of the following periodontal phenotypes is associated with thinner mean buccal bone thickness?
- A. Thin flat phenotype
- B. Thick flat phenotype
- C. Thin scalloped phenotype
- D. Thick scalloped phenotype
✅ Correct Answer: Thin scalloped phenotype
Explanation: This phenotype is characterized by thin gingival tissues and bone, making it more prone to recession and bone loss.
(33) Which of the following landmarks will best guide the esthetic arrangement of maxillary anterior teeth in a complete denture?
- A. Incisive papilla
- B. Midline of the nose
- C. Median palatine suture
- D. Anterior maxillary ridge
✅ Correct Answer: Incisive papilla
Explanation: The incisive papilla is a reliable anatomical landmark to position the maxillary anterior teeth for optimal esthetics.
(34) A 64-year-old patient presented with severe occlusal wear of his maxillary single complete denture, opposing a mandibular Class I metallic partial denture. Clinical examination revealed epulis fissuratum and bone loss around anterior mandibular teeth.
Which of the following will be the clinical presentation of the anterior maxillary ridge?
- A. Flat
- B. Flabby
- C. Knife edge
- D. Hyperplastic
✅ Correct Answer: Flabby
Explanation: Continuous denture wear and occlusal trauma can lead to flabby, fibrous tissue formation in the anterior maxilla.
(35) A dentist is performing periodontal charting to calculate the clinical attachment loss at the distobuccal site for tooth #11. The gingival margin is 2 mm coronal to the CEJ, and the probing depth is 2 mm.
What is the clinical attachment loss at this site?
- A. 0 mm
- B. 2 mm
- C. 4 mm
- D. 6 mm
✅ Correct Answer: 0 mm
Explanation: Since the gingival margin is coronal to the CEJ, there is no attachment loss (probing depth minus gingival margin level: 2 mm – 2 mm = 0 mm).
(36) Which of the following areas is Gracey curette no. 11-12 indicated for?
- A. Anterior teeth labial
- B. Posterior teeth distal
- C. Premolar teeth lingual
- D. Posterior teeth mesial
✅ Correct Answer: Posterior teeth mesial
Explanation: Gracey 11-12 curettes are specifically designed for the mesial surfaces of posterior teeth.
(37) Which of the following is the rate of slow palatal expansion?
- A. 0.5 mm in two weeks
- B. 1 mm every other day
- C. 0.5 mm every other day
- D. 0.25 mm every other day
✅ Correct Answer: 0.25 mm every other day
Explanation: Slow palatal expansion at this rate minimizes risks of tissue strain and provides better adaptation.
(38) A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with a large swelling in the gingiva. Examination reveals poor oral hygiene and a pedunculated purplish-red nodular lesion between teeth #12 and #13.
What is the best course of action?
- A. Extraction of #13 and #14
- B. Oral hygiene instructions
- C. Scaling and excisional biopsy
- D. Root canal treatment of #13 and #14
✅ Correct Answer: Scaling and excisional biopsy
Explanation: Pyogenic granuloma, often seen during pregnancy, requires removal and addressing contributing factors like plaque.
(39) An 11-year-old presented with a Class II skeletal malocclusion due to a retruded mandible.
Which of the following appliances can be useful for enhancing mandibular growth in this patient?
- A. Head gear
- B. Functional appliance
- C. Protraction face mask
- D. Fixed orthodontic appliance
✅ Correct Answer: Functional appliance
Explanation: Functional appliances, such as the Herbst or twin block, can stimulate mandibular growth to address skeletal Class II malocclusions.
(40) A 32-year-old man is complaining of changes in his gum line. The clinical examination revealed gingival recession around tooth #44, with obvious clefting in the gingival margin around this tooth.
What is the most likely reason for the change in the gingival margin around tooth #44?
- A. Allergy
- B. Genetics
- C. Gingival inflammation
- D. Improper use of dental floss
✅ Correct Answer: Improper use of dental floss
Explanation: The clefting in the gingival margin is commonly caused by trauma from improper flossing techniques, such as snapping the floss into the gingival sulcus.
(41) Which of the following is the most important local etiological factor in periodontal diseases?
- A. Local anatomic factors
- B. Subgingival restorations
- C. Excessive tooth mobility
- D. Dental plaque biofilm and calculus
✅ Correct Answer: Dental plaque biofilm and calculus
Explanation: The primary cause of periodontal disease is the accumulation of dental plaque and calculus, which leads to inflammation and tissue destruction.
(42) Which of the following instruments is used to detect inflammatory gingival bleeding?
- A. Nabers probe
- B. Periodontal file
- C. Dental explorer
- D. Periodontal probe
✅ Correct Answer: Periodontal probe
Explanation: A periodontal probe is used to assess the gingival sulcus and to detect bleeding on probing, which is a sign of gingival inflammation.
(43) A 56-year-old healthy man presented to the clinic seeking implant treatment for missing lower right teeth. Clinical examination revealed missing 451 and 46, probing depth ranging from 3-5 mm, and generalized bleeding on probing. Radiograph revealed generalized horizontal bone loss of 20%.
What is the most likely treatment of choice?
- A. Request cone beam CT then proceed with implant treatment
- B. Request periapical radiographs then proceed with implant treatment
- C. Request orthopantomogram (panorama) then proceed with implant treatment
- D. Scaling, root planing, oral hygiene instructions, then wait 4 weeks for the reevaluation visit
✅ Correct Answer: Scaling, root planing, oral hygiene instructions, then wait 4 weeks for the reevaluation visit
Explanation: The patient shows signs of periodontal disease that should be treated first before considering implants. Scaling and root planing, along with improved oral hygiene, are critical steps before implant planning.
(44) Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic forms of plaque-induced gingivitis?
- A. Vesicle formation
- B. Gingival sloughing
- C. Firm and leathery gingival consistency
- D. Diffuse puffiness (edematous) and softening of the gingiva
✅ Correct Answer: Firm and leathery gingival consistency
Explanation: Chronic gingivitis often presents with firm, leathery gingiva, whereas acute gingivitis may present with more edematous or puffy tissues.
(45) A 10-year-old patient came to the dentist following dental trauma. The father did not give enough details to the dentist during history taking.
In which of the following situations should the dentist suspect child abuse?
- A. If the father is above 50 years old and not medically fit
- B. If the story is consistent with the severity of the trauma
- C. If the location of the trauma was at the patient’s school
- D. If they came to the dentist on the same day the trauma happened
✅ Correct Answer: If the story is consistent with the severity of the trauma
Explanation: Inconsistencies between the reported cause of trauma and the severity of the injury may be a red flag for potential child abuse.
(46) A 34-year-old healthy man presented to the clinic for scaling and root surface debridement. He was diagnosed with generalized stage II periodontitis.
What should the dentist tell the patient to expect following the treatment visits?
- A. He will get root caries
- B. He will notice tooth discoloration
- C. He will experience root sensitivity
- D. He will feel his teeth becoming loose
✅ Correct Answer: He will experience root sensitivity
Explanation: After scaling and root planing, patients often experience temporary root sensitivity as the roots are exposed and healing takes place.
(47) Which of the following happens to the supracrestal planning in deep pockets?
- A. Increases
- B. Decreases
- C. Remains constant
- D. Retracts then extends
✅ Correct Answer: Increases
Explanation: Supracrestal planning increases in deeper pockets because the probing depth increases, leading to greater tissue reorganization and possibly more attachment loss.
(48) Which of the following is the consequence of placing a small diameter implant in a molar area from a restorative point of view?
- A. The ceramic will be undermined and may fracture
- B. The emergence profile of the crown will be compromised
- C. The prosthesis will be easier to clean than with a wider diameter
- D. The soft tissue healing will be more favorable leading to better aesthetics
✅ Correct Answer: The ceramic will be undermined and may fracture
Explanation: A small diameter implant may result in a compromised emergence profile, leading to a prosthesis that is more likely to fracture due to lack of adequate support.
(49) Which of the following periodontal phenotypes is associated with a narrow average of keratinized tissue width?
- A. Thin flat phenotype
- B. Thick flat phenotype
- C. Thin scalloped phenotype
- D. Thick scalloped phenotype
✅ Correct Answer: Thin scalloped phenotype
Explanation: The thin scalloped phenotype is typically associated with a narrower band of keratinized tissue, which can make the area more prone to recession.
(50) When do neonatal teeth erupt?
- A. Before birth
- B. Between 0-30 days
- C. 3 months of age
- D. 6 months of age
✅ Correct Answer: Between 0-30 days
Explanation: Neonatal teeth are teeth that appear in the mouth within the first 30 days after birth.
(51) A patient with a prognathic mandible presented to the clinic. On examination, the patient shows a 6 mm Class III malocclusion and anterior crossbite. The patient’s main concern is their facial aesthetics. Which of the following would be the best treatment?
- A. Growth modification
- B. Orthognathic surgery
- C. Dental arch expansion
- D. Orthodontic camouflage
✅ Correct Answer: Orthognathic surgery
Explanation: Orthognathic surgery is the most effective treatment for a patient with a significant skeletal discrepancy (Class III) to correct the malocclusion and improve facial aesthetics.
(52) A 42-year-old woman came to the clinic for a dental check-up. Clinical examination shows that the patient has multiple restorative treatments done in the past, including multiple full crowns and class II restorations. Which of the following is considered an iatrogenic factor that predisposes to periodontal inflammation?
- A. Supra-gingival crowns
- B. Well-contoured dental restorations
- C. Subgingival residue of dental cement
- D. A highly polished subgingival fixed partial denture
✅ Correct Answer: Subgingival residue of dental cement
Explanation: Subgingival residue from dental cement or restorative materials can cause irritation to the surrounding gingival tissues, leading to inflammation and periodontal issues.
(53) Which of the following is an indication of alveoloplasty?
- A. Increase the ridge height
- B. Eliminate soft tissue undercuts
- C. Increase the depth of the vestibule
- D. Eliminate sharp residual ridges and remove bony undercuts
✅ Correct Answer: Eliminate sharp residual ridges and remove bony undercuts
Explanation: Alveoloplasty is performed to smooth and contour the residual alveolar ridge, eliminating sharp or irregular bone edges to prepare for prosthetic restoration.
(54) A 20-year-old woman visited the clinic to enquire about her gum health. Her gingiva is shown in the attached photo.
Which of the following is the gingival status?
- A. Healthy
- B. Gingivitis
- C. Lost stippling
- D. Deficient attached mucosa
✅ Correct Answer: Gingivitis
Explanation: If the gingiva appears swollen, red, and bleeds upon probing, it indicates gingivitis. Lost stippling and deficient attached mucosa could also suggest underlying periodontal issues, but gingivitis is the most likely diagnosis.
(55) Which of the following are the predominant immune cells in stage I of gingivitis (initial lesion)?
- A. Neutrophils (THEY are PMNs)
- B. Plasma cells
- C. Lymphocytes
- D. Macrophages
✅ Correct Answer: Neutrophils (THEY are PMNs)
Explanation: In the initial stage of gingivitis, neutrophils (polymorphonuclear leukocytes, PMNs) are the predominant immune cells responsible for the early inflammatory response.
(56) A 12-year-old boy presented to the dental clinic with high-grade fever and generalized malaise. Oral examination showed diffuse erythematous involvement of the gingiva and spherical gray vesicles on the lip and tongue, which appeared 2 days ago (see image).
Which of the following will be the most appropriate management?
- A. Systemic antibiotics
- B. Periodontal therapy
- C. Antiviral therapy and supportive care
- D. Chlorhexidine mouthwash prescription
✅ Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and supportive care
Explanation: The symptoms suggest a viral infection, likely herpes simplex virus (HSV) or a similar condition, for which antiviral treatment and supportive care are the most appropriate options.
(57) Which of the following appliances can be used to treat a deep bite in a teenager?
- A. Protraction face mask
- B. Fixed functional appliance
- C. A removable functional appliance
- D. A removable appliance with anterior bite plate
✅ Correct Answer: A removable appliance with anterior bite plate
Explanation: A removable appliance with an anterior bite plate can help in correcting a deep bite by preventing further occlusal contact in the anterior region.
(58) A 45-year-old man is seeking periodontal treatment. Upon examination, the dentist noticed mobility of the mandibular **. A periapical radiograph was taken (see image). Which of the following best describes the bone level from the radiograph?
- A. Slight bone loss
- B. Severe bone loss
- C. Normal bone loss
- D. Moderate bone loss
✅ Correct Answer: Moderate bone loss
Explanation: The bone level is assessed based on the radiograph, and “moderate bone loss” would indicate noticeable yet not extensive loss of bone around the affected teeth.
(59) Which of the following is the implant component shown (see image)?
- A. Abutment
- B. Cover screw
- C. Implant fixture
- D. Impression coping
✅ Correct Answer: Cover screw
Explanation: The cover screw is used to cover the implant fixture during the healing phase to protect the implant site.
(60) A 45-year-old smoker patient presented to the dental clinic seeking replacement of missing teeth with dental implants. The patient is healthy and has no underlying active dental or periodontal diseases. His oral hygiene is acceptable, with a plaque index of 12% and minimal bleeding on probing (less than 6%). The patient is smoking 1 to 2 packs daily for the last 8 years.
Which of the following should be considered prior to the placement of dental implants?
- A. Regenerative procedure is very predictable in smokers
- B. Smoking has no negative impact on long-term outcomes
- C. Cessation of smoking should be recommended before implants
- D. Healing of dental implants in smoker patients is faster than non-smokers
✅ Correct Answer: Cessation of smoking should be recommended before implants
Explanation: Smoking can impair healing, reduce bone integration, and increase the risk of implant failure. Therefore, cessation is highly recommended before placing implants.
(61) Which of the following areas of the jaw exhibits the thinnest cortical plate walls?
- A. Buccal aspect of maxillary molars
- B. Labial aspect of maxillary incisors
- C. Buccal aspect of mandibular molars
- D. Labial aspect of mandibular incisors
✅ Correct Answer: Buccal aspect of mandibular molars
Explanation: The buccal aspect of mandibular molars typically exhibits the thinnest cortical plate walls, which can affect implant placement and surgical planning.
(62) Which of the following defects in impression for a complete denture, when present, necessitates the re-taking of the impression?
- A. Voids that could be corrected on the model
- B. Small areas of the impression tray showing through
- C. Distortion of the impression due to movement during setting
- D. Incorrect positioning of the impression tray, not capturing all anatomic landmarks
✅ Correct Answer: Distortion of the impression due to movement during setting
Explanation: Distortion that occurs due to movement during setting compromises the accuracy of the impression and requires it to be re-taken.
(63) A 35-year-old man presented to the dental clinic with an acute periodontal abscess related to tooth #33. He previously had deep pockets and heavy calculus deposits and just completed scaling 2 days ago. Temperature: 37°C.
Which of the following is the appropriate line of treatment?
- A. Extraction
- B. Rescaling of affected site
- C. Reinforcement of oral hygiene instructions
- D. Systemic antibiotics for 1 week and re-evaluate
✅ Correct Answer: Rescaling of affected site
Explanation: Since the patient has a recent history of scaling and has a periodontal abscess, rescaling to remove any remaining debris or calculus is the most appropriate treatment, in addition to possible drainage if needed.
(64) A 23-year-old patient presented with Class I malocclusion and decreased varjet. The patient started V-shaped orthodontic treatment using ceramic appliances and coated wires. A couple of months later, the dentist noticed attrition on her upper incisors.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Steel ties
- B. Coated wire
- C. Ceramic brackets
- D. Chewing on incisors
✅ Correct Answer: Ceramic brackets
Explanation: Ceramic brackets, being more abrasive than metal brackets, can cause more wear (attrition) on the opposing teeth, especially on the incisors.
(65) Which of the following solutions might be used to measure the width of keratinized tissue?
- A. Silver nitrate
- B. Melzer’s solution
- C. Methylene blue
- D. Schiller’s potassium iodide
✅ Correct Answer: Schiller’s potassium iodide
Explanation: Schiller’s potassium iodide solution is commonly used to highlight the keratinized tissue by staining it, aiding in measurement and assessment.
(66) The orthodontist decided to move two teeth apart as part of his treatment plan.
Which of the following happens to the gingiva in between the two teeth?
- A. The interdental tissues become fibrotic
- B. The adjacent marginal gingivae form the interdental papilla
- C. The two adjacent marginal gingivae invert and form gingival pockets
- D. The gingiva becomes firmly bound to the interdental bone with the absence of interdental papilla
✅ Correct Answer: The gingiva becomes firmly bound to the interdental bone with the absence of interdental papilla
Explanation: In orthodontic space opening, the gingiva may become firm and bound to the bone, resulting in the loss of the interdental papilla.
(67) Which of the following are the predominant immune cells in stage III of gingivitis (established lesion)?
- A. PMN
- B. Plasma cells
- C. Lymphocytes
- D. Macrophages
✅ Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation: Plasma cells are the predominant immune cells in the established lesion phase of gingivitis, signaling chronic inflammation.
(68) A 47-year-old man required non-surgical periodontal treatment as part of his initial plan. His probing depths ranged between 3-6 mm. His radiographs showed subgingival calculus.
Which of the following is the instrument of choice for initial therapy on the mesial surfaces of his premolar?
- A. Sickle scaler
- B. Ultrasonic scaler
- C. Gracey curette #13-14
- D. Gracey curette #11-12
✅ Correct Answer: Gracey curette #11-12
Explanation: Gracey curettes are designed for specific areas of the tooth. The #11-12 curette is best suited for mesial surfaces of premolars.
(69) What does the lack of space between deciduous teeth predict in the future?
- A. Increase in the overbite
- B. Decrease in the overbite
- C. Crowding in permanent dentition
- D. Spacing in the permanent dentition
✅ Correct Answer: Crowding in permanent dentition
Explanation: Lack of space between deciduous teeth often leads to crowding in the permanent dentition once the teeth erupt.
(70) A 14-year-old patient came to the dental clinic for the extraction of a lower retained primary molar.
Which of the following is the most appropriate patient position during extraction?
- A. Maxillary occlusal plane is parallel to the floor
- B. Mandibular occlusal plane is parallel to the floor
- C. Maxillary occlusal plane at 45 degrees to the floor
- D. Mandibular occlusal plane at 45 degrees to the floor
✅ Correct Answer: Mandibular occlusal plane is parallel to the floor
Explanation: For lower tooth extractions, the patient’s mandibular occlusal plane should be parallel to the floor to facilitate access and visibility.
(71) How can a periodontal abscess be definitely differentiated from an endodontic abscess?
- A. Location
- B. Pain source
- C. Pulp vitality
- D. Radiographic appearance
✅ Correct Answer: Pulp vitality
Explanation: The vitality of the pulp is key to differentiating between a periodontal and an endodontic abscess. An endodontic abscess will show no pulp vitality, while a periodontal abscess will not affect pulp health.
(72) A 48-year-old woman presents to the dental clinic complaining of generalized gum bleeding associated with brushing, despite her current oral hygiene practices that include brushing twice daily and flossing at least once daily. She received full crowns on most of her teeth 1 month ago. Upon clinical examination, minimal plaque accumulation was observed, bleeding on probing was about 65%, probing depth was 2-3 mm, and no clinical evidence of attachment loss.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?
- A. Self-inflicted trauma
- B. Compromised immunity
- C. Non-plaque induced gingivitis
- D. Crown preparation extending to the supracrestal attachment (biological width)
✅ Correct Answer: Crown preparation extending to the supracrestal attachment (biological width)
Explanation: Violation of the biological width during crown preparation can lead to gingival inflammation and bleeding due to irritation of the supracrestal attachment.
(73) Which of the following is the best treatment for moderate to severe hypermobile ridge?
- A. Use of sclerosing agents
- B. Fabrication of dentures with balanced occlusion
- C. Surgical improvement of the denture-bearing area
- D. Fabrication of dentures that are retained with denture adhesive
✅ Correct Answer: Surgical improvement of the denture-bearing area
Explanation: For hypermobile ridges, surgical intervention to improve the ridge shape and stability is often the best approach for ensuring proper denture fit.
(74) Which of the following is the histological term used to describe the result of a vital pulp procedure allowing the continued physiologic development and formation of the roots’ apices?
- A. Pulpectomy
- B. Apexification
- C. Apexogenesis
- D. Cvek pulpectomy
✅ Correct Answer: Apexogenesis
Explanation: Apexogenesis refers to the continued physiological development of the root apex in a young, vital tooth following pulp therapy.
(75) During the fabrication of a maxillary complete denture, the dental surgeon examines the palate for recording the posterior palatal seal. However, he is unable to identify the exact location of the pterygomaxillary notch.
Which of the following instruments is the best to locate the posterior palatal seal?
- A. T-burnisher (on the patient)
- B. Inedible pencil (in the cast)
- C. PKT instrument
- D. William’s probe
✅ Correct Answer: T-burnisher (on the patient)
Explanation: The T-burnisher is used intraorally to locate the posterior palatal seal by gently pressing on the tissue to identify the correct location for the seal.
(76) Which of the following is the most important factor when planning treatment with a functional appliance for a patient?
- A. Gender
- B. Skeletal age
- C. Body weight stage
- D. Dental developmental stage
✅ Correct Answer: Skeletal age
Explanation: Skeletal age is a key factor in determining the effectiveness of functional appliances, as it reflects the stage of growth and development of the patient.
(77) Which of the following is the recommended amount (ounces/day) of fruit for a preschool child according to the American Academy of Pediatrics?
- A. 0
- B. 1-3
- C. 4-6
- D. Up to 10
✅ Correct Answer: 4-6
Explanation: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that preschool children consume 4-6 ounces of fruit per day as part of a balanced diet.
(78) A 29-year-old patient came to the dental clinic with a chief complaint of an impacted tooth #38.
Which of the following is a consequence of surgical extraction of an impacted third molar?
- A. Creation of vertical defect
- B. Creation of periapical lesion
- C. Creation of horizontal defect
- D. Creation of furcation involvement
✅ Correct Answer: Creation of vertical defect
Explanation: Surgical extraction of impacted third molars can sometimes create vertical bone defects at the extraction site, especially when there is significant bone removal.
(79) Which of the following cephalometric measurements helps to determine the anteroposterior position of the mandible relative to the cranial base?
- A. SNA
- B. SNB
- C. ANB
- D. MMP
✅ Correct Answer: SNB
Explanation: SNB is the cephalometric measurement that helps assess the anteroposterior position of the mandible in relation to the cranial base.
(80) Which of the following is the most appropriate position for the radiographer (doctor) without a shield, in case of obtaining an intraoral radiograph for a dental patient?
- A. 1 meter away and behind the x-ray source
- B. 2 meters away and behind the x-ray source
- C. 1 meter away and in front of the x-ray source
- D. 2 meters away and in front of the x-ray source
✅ Correct Answer: 2 meters away and behind the x-ray source
Explanation: The radiographer should stand at least 2 meters away from the x-ray source and be positioned behind it to minimize radiation exposure.
(81) Which of the following types of malocclusion found in Down syndrome patients is the result of a large tongue?
- A. Deep bite
- B. Teeth spacing
- C. Teeth crowding
- D. Posterior crossbite
✅ Correct Answer: Teeth spacing
Explanation: A large tongue in Down syndrome patients can result in spacing between the teeth due to the tongue’s size and position, leading to a lower risk of dental caries.
(82) Minocycline microspheres are locally delivered into periodontal pockets to treat certain conditions. How many days do they maintain therapeutic drug concentrations within the pocket?
- A. 2
- B. 7
- C. 14
- D. 30
✅ Correct Answer: 14
Explanation: Minocycline microspheres maintain therapeutic concentrations within the periodontal pocket for up to 14 days.
(83) A 55-year-old man suffers from periodontitis in which the microbiological test revealed the presence of black pigmented Bacteroides and spirochetes.
- A. Tetracycline
- B. Azithromycin
- C. Ciprofloxacin
- D. Metronidazole
✅ Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation: Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria, such as Bacteroides and spirochetes, making it suitable for treating periodontitis with these microbial findings.
(84) How deep (in mm) do toothbrush bristles penetrate below the gingival margin?
- A. 0.5 to 1.0
- B. 1.5 to 2.0
- C. 2.5 to 3.0
- D. 3.5 to 4.0
✅ Correct Answer: 0.5 to 1.0
Explanation: Toothbrush bristles generally penetrate 0.5 to 1.0 mm below the gingival margin during regular brushing.
(85) A 35-year-old woman visited the dental clinic complaining of multiple episodes of discomfort and swellings at the site of dental implants that were restored 8 months ago. A peri-apical radiograph was requested. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the clinical presentation?
- A. Cracked crown
- B. Peri-implantitis
- C. Peri-implant mucositis
- D. Implant overloading
✅ Correct Answer: Peri-implantitis
Explanation: Peri-implantitis is characterized by soft tissue inflammation and bone resorption around the implant, often presenting with discomfort and swelling.
(86) Lateral occlusal forces during mandibular eccentric movement, functional or parafunctional, exert forces that could lead to non-restorable fractures of root canal treated posterior teeth.
Which occlusal parameter from the following would expose posterior teeth to more lateral occlusal forces?
- A. Group function
- B. Shallow cuspal inclines
- C. Canine-protected occlusions
- D. Edge to edge occlusal relation
✅ Correct Answer: Group function
Explanation: Group function distributes occlusal forces across multiple teeth, including posterior teeth, increasing the likelihood of non-restorable fractures, especially in heavily restored teeth.
(87) In a mandibular Kennedy class, the usable undercut is located at the middle of the facial surface of the most posterior abutment.
Which of the following is the clasp of choice?
- A. RPI
- B. RPA
- C. Ring
- D. Back action
✅ Correct Answer: RPI
Explanation: The RPI clasp system is appropriate for mid-buccal posterior undercuts, as the I-bar engages this location effectively.
(88) A 55-year-old woman presented to the clinic complaining of hypersensitivity from her teeth after scaling and root planing performed 2 days ago. Clinical examination showed localized ulcers on the buccal mucosa of teeth #35 and #37, with excellent oral hygiene.
Which of the following is the most likely treatment of choice?
- A. Prescribe systemic steroids
- B. Apply topical antibiotics at inflamed sites
- C. Do another round of scaling and root planing
- D. Apply desensitizing agent then assure the patient
✅ Correct Answer: Apply desensitizing agent then assure the patient
Explanation: The hypersensitivity is likely due to the recent scaling and root planing, and applying a desensitizing agent can help alleviate the discomfort.
(89) Which of the following is most accurate when comparing the crowns of the primary molar teeth to the crowns of permanent ones?
- A. More bulbous
- B. Larger occlusally
- C. Wider mesiodistally
- D. Converging gingivally
✅ Correct Answer: More bulbous
Explanation: The crowns of primary molars are more bulbous than those of permanent molars, as they are designed to accommodate the smaller jaw size and larger pulp chambers.
(90) After making the impression for a single implant, the interocclusal space was found to be 4 mm. Which of the following prosthetic options is the most ideal treatment?
- A. Screw-retained crown
- B. Cement-retained crown
- C. Submerging the implant and fabricate FDP
- D. Extract implant and place it at a deeper level
✅ Correct Answer: Screw-retained crown
Explanation: A screw-retained crown is ideal when there is enough interocclusal space, as it allows for easier access to the screw for future adjustments.
(91) A 7-year-old girl came to the clinic accompanied by her mother. The girl complained about teeth sensitivity. Clinical examination showed that all first molars and central incisors are hypoplastic.
Which of the following is the probable diagnosis?
- A. Fluorosis
- B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
- C. Dentin dysplasia
- D. Molar incisor hypomineralization
✅ Correct Answer: Molar incisor hypomineralization
Explanation: Molar incisor hypomineralization (MIH) is characterized by hypoplasia of first molars and incisors, leading to sensitivity.
(92) A 42-year-old healthy man is unhappy about dark areas near the gingiva facial to his anterior prosthetic crowns, which were done about 6 years ago. He has a low smile line and does not show those areas when smiling. Upon examination, recession and recurrent caries related to the prosthetic crowns were noted.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for gingival recession?
- A. Excess cement
- B. Brushing with a hard toothbrush
- C. Trauma from the retraction cord
- D. Violation of the supracrestal attachment
✅ Correct Answer: Violation of the supracrestal attachment
Explanation: Violating the biological width (supracrestal attachment) during crown preparation can lead to gingival recession and irritation, resulting in the dark areas and recession seen in this patient.
(93) Which of the following helps in reaching a definitive diagnosis of gingival allergic reaction to red pepper?
- A. Analysis of complete blood count
- B. Immunological examination of gingival biopsy
- C. Histopathological examination of gingival biopsy
- D. Resolution of gingival inflammation removal after the allergen
✅ Correct Answer: Resolution of gingival inflammation removal after the allergen
Explanation: The most definitive way to diagnose a gingival allergic reaction to red pepper is by eliminating the allergen and observing whether the inflammation resolves.
What is a Prometric Test?
Prometric tests serve as reliable assessments for various professional certifications and licensures. These exams are conducted at designated facilities known as Prometric exam centers. With a global presence, these centers are equipped to handle large numbers of candidates aspiring for career advancement.
Finding Your Prometric Testing Dates
One of the first steps in preparing for your certification is to identify available Prometric test dates. Each testing center publishes its schedule, offering various slots to accommodate candidates. It’s essential to book your appointment well in advance, as popular dates can fill quickly.
